Spifflicate him again, Hat; he's still moving.
Sad to say, you have a point.
Posted by fev at January 23, 2006 02:32 PMIt would seem necessary to specify that the word is always pejorative. You would not speak of the arrant perfection of a Mozart piano concerto, for example.
I'm not a linguist (and I don't even play one on the internet), but I'm sure there's a term for a word that enters the spoken language twice: first as it was actually pronounced, and then as it is spelled.
I'm wondering if "arrant" and "errant" aren't (eren't?) an example of this. To "err" originally had a meaning (from the French, and thus presumably from the Latin) of "to wander" or "to travel". So, a knight errant was simply a traveling knight.
At some point the meaning came to include the idea of wandering or straying from the correct path, and then to include the idea of moral lapse -- the sense we find in the phrase "arrant knave".
Here's the kicker: I wonder if these aren't exactly the same word? In some words the Brits pronounce written "er" as "ar" (or is it that they spell spoken "ar" as "er"?): "clark/clerk", "Barclay/Berkeley". The "Barbary Coast" is where the "Berbers" live.
Is it possible that the word originally spelled "errant" (taken over from the French) was commonly pronounced "arrant" (cf Henri/Harry), then re-entered the written language spelled as it was pronounced ("arrant knave", "knight arrant")? Then re-entered the spoken language pronounced as it was spelled ("knight errant")?
Help me out, linguistic historians!
Posted by Berberian at the Gate at January 23, 2006 08:57 PM
Berberian, the change you describe is called a pronunciation spelling, and that does seem to be roughly what occurred: an alternation in pronunciation was matched by an alternation in orthography. The OED etymology for arrant says "For the vowel-change cf. arrand= errand, Harry=Herry, Henry, FAR=earlier fer, etc."
Oh, and Tensor, if your read Safire's column you'll see he does make mention of relative Googlecounts. (Not that I trust those very much, but in this case they seem to be reliable indicators of collocational frequency.
Posted by Ben Zimmer at January 23, 2006 10:28 PMOh, for the love of Mike. I keep promising myself I'm not going to assume things, and then I go and make an ass out of...well, me, at least. Hey, Hat, any chance you could delete my comment so I don't look like a fool for all neternity?
Posted by The Tensor at January 24, 2006 08:01 AMSure thing!
Posted by language hat at January 24, 2006 01:12 PMI ran Safire's article through MS-Word's spelling and grammar checker for amusement with some interesting results:
Safire / Microsoft
supermaven / super maven
The Times's / The Time's
errant's / errand's
errants / errands
its meaning / it's meaning
Word apparently doesn't like errant as a noun. It didn't flag arrant at all for anything. Both Safire and Word confuse me on the posssessive of "The Times". I would have thought it was The Times' without the second s. And finally, Word is just plain wrong on its vs. it's.
Posted by Janet at January 24, 2006 03:57 PMAnd from the Encarta (UK version) dictionary:
"arrant adj. used to emphasize that somebody or something is an extreme example of something disapproved of [Mid-16th century. Alteration of ERRANT 'wandering'; from its frequent application to roving vagabonds]." I'm dubious of the last part but the meaning is clear.
Posted by Glyn at January 24, 2006 06:13 PMWord's spell check is as bad as WIndows software.
Posted by John Emerson at January 24, 2006 06:53 PMI like "arrant" because I think it recalls, if only visually and aurally, the word "arrogant" -- which, in my experience, the spouters of arrant nonsense often are.
Hey this just occurred to me: Don Quixote could be described as a "knight arrant"!
Posted by Jeremy Osner at January 31, 2006 09:47 AM