In English we don't (always) let our own spelling conventions rule our pronunciation of foreign names; why should they in Spanish?
Posted by Anton Sherwood at December 24, 2002 10:12 PMProbably because English has such an opaque spelling system that we're used to words not sounding like they look like they should sound; in Spanish, on the other hand, sounds are clearly indicated by the spelling, so there's no tradition of pronouncing things in unusual ways.
Posted by language hat at December 26, 2002 05:15 PMThe Ogre defends unanglicized pronunciations here.
Posted by language hat at December 27, 2002 10:39 AM